Hi there, a little confused, can anyone advise on the following?

I am in my 40's & have always had clear scans & no signs of HPV. A smear result last Spring showed no HPV but a biopsy taken in August has tested positive for HPV. I had unprotected intercourse with a new partner during this time. Does this mean I contracted the virus between these time frames or could I have had it previously without it showing up in smear tests?

Thank you for your help.